Hi There,
I got my divorce in August last year. Part of the
financial agreement was that the marital home was to be sold, and said how
the profits were to be divided etc.
One bit was that I pay a
£200 contribution towards the mortgage until its sold, which makes
sense.
My only worry is that its been six months now and shows
no signs of being sold - my ex is quite happy there (Its a five bedroom
house with just her and my son there except when he's with me) and as I'm
paying towards the mortgage has no real incentive to sell.
She's
also been seeing a new guy for most of the last 6 months who spends a lot
of time there.
Anyway - I'm not that fussed about the new guy,
he seems nice enough, or the division of profits etc (Just wanted to put as
much detail as may be asked for in in advance!). My question is just - is
there any time in the future at which i should go back to court to see if I
can reduce my payments? I dont have enough money coming in to meet my
outgoings at the moment, so paying £200 less when the
house is sold would be fantastic, i'm just a bit worried that could be
years away now!
The view in court was that as we both wanted the
house sold, this was not a long term thing, but the order doesnt state any
timescales.
your views would be much appreciated!
Thanks
Chris